When anyone quotes the New World Translation, I just cringe. The JW interpretation of scripture is bad enough, but it's like a group of Boy Scouts with a Hebrew-Greek-Aramaic lexicon translating the entire Bible. Even if I were a dedicated believer in the Society, the first thing I'd do is toss that abomination in the trash and use a respected and accurate translation!
Regarding the establishment of Yahweh's Kingdom in the last days, the Green Dragon "translates" it (as it appears above):
In the days of those kings [governments now ruling]the God of heaven will set up a kingdom [in heaven] that will never be brought to ruin. And the kingdom itself will not be passed on to any other people [humans will never again rule the earth]. It will crush and put an end to all these [present] kingdoms, and it itself will stand to times indefinite.
First, in the "days of those kings" refers to the individual nations that sprang up followed the fall of Rome. One can stretch it to our days if one wishes, but the period of time spans from about 1830 to our present time and presumably beyond. Next, it will be established by God and not man. In fact, the New International Version puts it this way:
In the time of those kings, the God of heaven will set up a kingdom that will never be destroyed, nor will it be left to another people. It will crush all those kingdoms and bring them to an end, but it will itself endure forever.
One wonders why the translators of the Green Dragon uses the terms "never be brought to ruin" instead of "never be destroyed" as most other versions state. The original language actually uses the word "destroyed" and not "brought to ruin." True, "ruin" means "total destruction or disintigration," but "destroy" means to "tear down or break up, demolish." But the NWT states the kingdom would not be "brought to ruin." It's once removed in meaning from what it actually says. After that, the NWT says the kingdom will "not be passed on to any other people." But the original language doesn't say this. It says that it will not be "left to another people." In other words, the kingdom will not be run by "another people." Using the term "passed on" to any other people implies a transition of the kingdom that the original language doesn't say. Literally, the text states: "and its kingdom to another people is not left." The term "left" in this case is defined, "To cause or allow to be or remain in a specified state." This is completely different from being "passed on," which implies a "change" in remaining in a specified state. Finally, the NWT states that the kingdom will "stand to times indefinite." Literally, the text states, "standeth to an age," which is a way of saying "forever" or "without end." But "indefinite" means "unclear" or "vague"—without precise limits.
Let the readers compare the versions, but it's clear the translators of the Green Dragon have agendas in their "translations." If one cannot add or delete from the scriptures, can one change its meaning? How can the scriptures mean that humans no longer will rule the earth by this scripture? It may be true, but that's not what the scriptures say. And while these are parenthetical interpretations of scripture, the governments of God throughout the millennia have always included humans. And when Jesus becomes the King of Earth, it's not reasonable to think he will micromanage every detail of government. Wasn't the whole idea that the saints would reign with Christ?
It's not clear what the Society believes the Kingdom is. When Jesus returns, will he establish a kingdom or will he use the WBTS government now in existence? And when Daniel writes that "in the days of those kings," does he mean a future event or a past event? In short, is the Society that Kingdom or will Yahweh establish another kingdom?
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What does Psalm 110:1-2 with 1914? And how does the Society know the Ancient of Days is "Jehovah God"? The Father God already has conferred "rulership and dignity and kingdom" upon Jesus after the fall of mankind, when he was made intercessor. Finally, why do the NWT translators insist on translating "everlasting" into "indefinitely lasting"? The first and most popular definition of "everlasting" is "eternal" or "neverending." Only the second definition refers to "continuing indefinitely or for a long period of time." If Daniel had meant "indefinitely" rather than "eternal," why didn't he say so?